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ZJU 软件工程题库精简版

很多思政题可以凭党性做对,而有些则需要学习具体的知识,这里只含需要学习的题目。题目序号 x.y 表示这是第 x 章的第 y 题。只列一个选项为正确选项,多个选项中那个 粗体 + 斜体 的是正确选项。

如果题目有选项说 both x and y、多选 x y z 或 All of the above 那一定是对的,除了出现在这里的几题。

1~5 章

1.2 Software is a product and can be manufactured using the same technologies used for other engineering artifacts

  • False

1.3 Software deteriorates rather than wears out because

  • C. Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions (意思是客户不断提要求导致代码越改越屎山)

1.5 There are no real differences between creating WebApps and MobileApps.

  • False

2.1 Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?

  • A. Process
  • B. Manufacturing
  • C. Methods
  • D. Tools

2.3 Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities?

  • A. communication, planning, modeling, construction, deployment

2.8 In general software only succeeds if its behavior is consistent with the objectives of its designers.

  • False,designer 说了不算,甲方爸爸(stakeholder)说行才是行

3.2 The communication activity is best handled for small projects using six distinct actions (inception, elicitation, elaboration, negotiation, specification, validation).

  • False

3.5 Which of these are standards for assessing software processes?

  • B. SPICE
  • D. ISO 9001
  • E. both b and d

4.5 The spiral model of software development

  • C. Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration.

4.9 Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process model for software development?

  • A. Inception phase
  • B. Elaboration phase
  • C. Construction phase
  • D. Validation phase

5.4 In agile software processes the highest priorities is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software.

  • True

5.6 What are the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming (XP) process model?

  • D. planning, design, coding, testing

5.8 Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each team member at each daily Scrum meeting?

  • A. What did you do since the last meeting?
  • B. What obstacles are you encountering?
  • C. What obstacles are you encountering? (是的,选项重复)
  • D. What do you plan to accomplish be the next team meeting?

5.9 The Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM) suggests a philosophy that is based on the Pareto principle (80% of the application can be delivered in 20% of the time required to build the complete application).

  • True

5.11 Agile Unified Process uses the classic UP phased activities (inception, elaboration, construction, transition) to help the team visualize the overall process flow.

  • True

6~10 章

6.4 Teams with diversity in the individual team member skill sets tend to be more effective than teams without this diversity.

  • True

6.8 In XP a metaphor is used as a device to facilitate communications among customers, team members, and managers?

  • True (用隐喻让不懂技术的人理解个大概)

6.11 In collaborative development environments, metrics are used to reward and punish team members.

  • False

7.1 Software engineering principles have about a three year half-life.

  • False

7.2 Which of the following is not one of core principles of software engineering practice?

  • A. All design should be as simple as possible, but no simpler.
  • B. A software system exists only to provide value to its users.
  • C. Pareto principle (20% of any product requires 80% of the effort).
  • D. Remember that you produce others will consume

7.4 The agile view of iterative customer communication and collaboration is applicable to all software engineering practice.

  • True

7.7 Requirements models depict software in which three domains?

  • C. information, function, behavior

7.11 A successful test I ones that discovers at least one as-yet undiscovered error.

  • True

8.1 Requirements engineering is a generic process that does not vary from one software project to another.

  • True

8.4 A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.

  • False

8.8 In collaborative requirements gathering the facilitator

  • C. controls the meeting

8.9 Which of the following is not one of the requirement classifications used in Quality Function Deployment (QFD)?

  • C. mandatory

8.15 Analysis patterns facilitate the transformation of the analysis model into a design model by suggesting reliable solutions to common problems.

  • True

8.16 In agile process models requirements engineering and design activities are interleaved.

  • True

8.18 In requirements validation the requirements model is reviewed to ensure its technical feasibility.

  • False

8.19 The most common reason for software project failure is lack of functionality.

  • False

9.1 Which of these is not an element of a requirements model?

  • C. Data elements

9.2 Which of the following is not an objective for building a requirements model?

  • C. develop an abbreviated solution for the problem

9.4 In structured analysis models focus on the structure of the classes defined for a system along with their interactions.

  • False

9.6 It is important to consider alternative actor interactions when creating a preliminary use case.

  • False

9.9 UML activity diagrams are useful in representing which analysis model elements?

  • D. Scenario-based elements

9.10 UML swimnlane diagrams allow you to represent the flow of activities by showing the actors having responsibility for creating each data element.

  • False

10.3 Attributes are chosen for an object by examining the problem statement and identifying the entities that appear to be related.

  • False

10.4 Which of the following is not one of the broad categories used to classify operations?

  • A. computation
  • B. data manipulation
  • C. event monitors
  • D. transformers

10.8 A stereotype (注意不是prototype) is the basis for class reuse in UML modeling.

  • False

11~15 章

11.2 For purposes of behavior modeling an event occurs whenever

  • B. the system an actor exchange information.

11.3 For purposes of behavior modeling a state is any

  • C. observable mode of behavior.

11.4 The state transition diagram

  • D. indicates system reactions to external events

11.5 The UML sequence diagram shows the order in which system events are processed.

  • False

11.8 Which is not one of the analysis activities that is used to create a complete analysis model?

  • A. Configuration analysis
  • B. Content analysis
  • C. Functional analysis
  • D. Market analysis

11.10 What are the elements of a WebApp interaction model?

  • C. use-cases, sequence diagrams, state diagrams, interface prototype

11.11 UML activity diagrams can be used to represent the user observable functionality delivered by the WebApp as well as the operations contained in each analysis class.

  • True

12.4 Which of the following is not a characteristic common to all design methods?

  • A. configuration management
  • B. functional component representation
  • C. quality assessment guidelines
  • D. refinement heuristics

12.8 Since modularity is an important design goal it is not possible to have too many modules in a proposed design.

  • False

12.10 Cohesion (内聚) is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

  • B. focuses on just one thing.

12.11 Coupling (耦合) is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

  • D. is connected to other modules and the outside world.

12.14 Which of the following is not one of the five design class types

  • A. Business domain classes
  • B. Entity classes
  • C. Process classes
  • D. User interface classes

12.15 Which design model elements are used to depict a model of information represented from the user's view?

  • C. Data design elements

12.19 The deployment design elements specify the build order for the software components.

  • False

13.1 The best representation of system architecture is an operational software prototype.

  • False

13.3 An architectural description is often documented using an architecture template.

  • False

13.4 An architectural decision is often documented using an architecture decision description template.

  • True

13.14 Which of the following is not an example of infrastructure components that may need to be integrated into the software architecture?

  • C. Interface components

13.18 Pattern-based architectural reviews can be useful for project with short build cycles and volatile requirements.

  • True

13.19 Static architectural conformance checking assesses whether or not the source code matches the user visible requirements.

  • False

14.2 In the context of object-oriented software engineering a component contains

  • D. set of collaborating classes

14.5 Which of the following is not one of the four principles used to guide component-level design?

  • A. Dependency Inversion Principle
  • B. Interface Segregation Principle
  • C. Open-Closed Principle
  • D. Parsimonious Complexity Principle

14.6 The use of stereotypes can help identify the nature of components at the detailed design level.

  • True

14.8 Software coupling is a sign of poor architectural design and can always be avoided in every system.

  • False

14.11 WebApp content design at the component level focuses on content objects and the manner in which they interact.

  • False

14.13 Component-level design for mobile apps is not any different from component-based design for Web apps.

  • True

14.16 Which of the following is not one of the major activities of domain engineering?

  • A. analysis、
  • B. construction
  • C. dissemination
  • D. validation

14.17 Which of the following factors would not be considered during component qualification?

  • A. application programming interface (API)
  • B. development and integration tools required
  • C. exception handling
  • D. testing equipment required

14.18 Which is the following is a technique used for component wrapping?

  • B. clear-box wrapping

14.19 Which of the following is not one of the issues that form a basis for design for reuse?

  • A. object-oriented programming
  • B. program templates
  • C. standard data
  • D. standard interface protocols

15.1 hich of the following interface design principles does not allow the user to remain in control of the interaction with a computer?

  • D. only provide one rigidly defined method for accomplishing a task

15.6 Which model depicts the profile of the end users of a computer system?

  • C. user model

15.8 Which model depicts the look and feel of the user interface along with all supporting information?

  • A. implementation model

15.12 The computer's display capabilities are the primary determinant of the order in which user interface design activities are completed.

  • False

16~20 章

16.1 Which of the following is not one of the elements of a design pattern?

  • A. context
  • B. environment
  • C. problem
  • D. solution

16.2 RubberNecking is an example of a classic generative pattern.

  • False

16.7 It is important to reduce the coupling among design patterns so that they can be treated as independent entities.

  • False

16.12 Unlike architectural patterns, component-level design patterns may be applied to solve subproblems without regard to system context.

  • False

16.13 Most user interface design patterns fall with in one of ______ categories of patterns.

  • B. 10

16.17 Mobile app user interface patterns can be represented as a collection of best of breed screen images.

  • True

17.6 Screen layout design has several widely accepted standards based on human factors research.

  • False

17.10 Content objects are not normally chunked into Web pages until the implementation activities begin.

  • False

17.11 Content architecture and WebApp architecture are pretty much the same thing for many WebApps?

  • False

17.13 MVC is a three layer architecture that contains a

  • C. model, view, and controller

17.15 To allow the user to feel in control of a WebApp, it is a good idea to mix both horizontal and vertical navigation mechanisms on the same page.

  • False

17.17 Which of these is not one of the design activities associated with object-oriented hypermedia design?

  • C. content design

18.1 MobileApps must be designed take intermittent connectivity outages.

  • True

18.2 Modern electronics allow developers to ignore the power demands made by a MobileApp.

  • False

18.5 Quality function deployment is not necessary when implementing MobileApp user stories?

  • False

18.11 The most important MobileApp architecture decision whether to build a thin or fat mobile client.

  • True

19.7 Software metrics represent direct measures of some manifestation of quality.

  • False,应该是indirect的

19.8 The quality dilemma might be summarized as choosing between building things quickly or building things correctly.

  • False

19.9 Good enough software delivers high quality software functions along with specialized functions that contain known bugs.

  • True

19.10 Which of the following is likely to be the most expensive cost of quality?

  • B. External failure costs

20.3 Defect amplification models can be used to illustrate the costs associated with using software from its initial deployment to its retirement.

  • False

20.4 Review metrics can be used to assess the efficacy of each review activity.

  • True

21~25 章

21.3 The elements of software quality assurance consist of reviews, audits, and testing.

  • False

21.4 Which of these activities is not one of the activities recommended to be performed by an independent SQA group?

  • A. prepare SQA plan for the project
  • B. review software engineering activities to verify process compliance
  • C. report any evidence of noncompliance to senior management
  • D. serve as the sole test team for any software produced

21.6 Attempts to apply mathematical proof to demonstrate that a program conforms to its specifications are doomed to failure.

  • False

21.7 Statistical quality assurance involves

  • C. tracing each defect to its underlying cause, isolating the "vital few" causes, and moving to correct them

21.8 Six Sigma methodology defines three core steps.

  • C. define, measure, analyze

21.10 Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that

  • B. may cause an entire system to fail

22.1 In software quality assurance work there is no difference between software verification and software validation.

  • False

22.9 Bottom-up integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that

  • C. no stubs need to be written

22.11 Smoke testing might best be described as

  • B. rolling integration testing

22.12 When testing object-oriented software it is important to test each class operation separately as part of the unit testing process.

  • False

22.13 The OO testing integration strategy involves testing

  • A. groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way

22.17 Software validation is achieved through a series of tests performed by the user once the software is deployed in his or her work environment.

  • False

22.20 Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail in a variety of ways and verifies that software is able to continue execution without interruption.

  • False

22.22 Stress testing examines the pressures placed on the user during system use in extreme environments.

  • False

23.3 The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that each program function is operational is called

  • A. black-box testing

23.7 The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information regarding the number of

  • C. independent logic paths in the program

23.13 Graph-based testing methods can only be used for object-oriented systems

  • False

23.16 Orthogonal array testing enables the test designer to maximize the coverage of the test cases devised for relatively small input domains.

  • True

23.17 Test derived from behavioral class models should be based on the

  • C. state transition diagram

24.1 It is not possible to test object-oriented software without including error discovery techniques applied to the system OOA and OOD models

  • True

24.2 The correctness of the OOA and OOD model is accomplished using formal technical reviews by the software quality assurance team.

  • False

24.7 Encapsulation of attributes and operations inside objects makes it easy to obtain object state information during testing.

  • False

24.9 Fault-based testing is best reserved for

  • B. operations and classes that are critical or suspect

24.10 Scenario-based testing

  • A. concentrates on actor and software interaction
  • B. misses errors in specifications
  • C. misses errors in subsystem interactions
  • D. both a and b

24.11 Random order tests are conducted to exercise different class instance life histories.

  • True

24.12 Which of these techniques is not useful for partition testing at the class level

  • A. attribute-based partitioning
  • B. category-based partitioning
  • C. equivalence class partitioning
  • D. state-based partitioning

25.1 Which of the following is not one of the dimensions of quality used to assess a WebApp?

  • A. Content
  • B. Maintainability
  • C. Navigability
  • D. Usability

25.2 WebApps require special testing methodologies because WebApp errors have several unique characteristics.

  • True

25.3 Since WebnApps evolve continuously, the testing process is an on-going activity, conducted by the Web support staff using regression tests.

  • True

25.6 Which of the following is not one of the objectives of WebApp content testing?

  • B. Identify linking errors

25.9 Which of the following is not a WebApp interface mechanism?

  • A. Browser
  • B. Cookies
  • C. Forms
  • D. Links

25.11 Usability tests should be designed and executed by intended users for a given WebApp.

  • False

25.12 WebApp compatibility testing is conducted to be sure that the user model for usage scenario matched the user category assigned to a given user.

  • False

25.14 The purpose of WebApp navigation syntactic testing is to ensure the correct appearance of each navigation mechanism.

  • False

25.18 Which of the following is not a testable WebApp security element?

  • A. Authentication
  • B. Encryption
  • C. Firewalls
  • D. Penetration

25.20 Load testing involves determining the input of which 3 variables?

  • A. N, T, D

25.21 WebApp stress testing is a continuation load testing.

  • True

26~30 章

26.1 MobileApps require special testing methodologies because of concerns associated using them in diverse network environments.

  • True

26.5 A weighted device platform matrix helps to prioritize test cases.

  • False

27.2 It is possible to have a safe system that is not secure.

  • False

27.5 Cloud computing is has greater levels of security that other web data repositories.

  • False

27.11 Which is not one of the elements of a security case?

  • A. Arguments
  • B. Bug reports
  • C. Claims
  • D. Evidence

27.14 An incident response plan spells out the actions to be carried out by each stakeholder in response to specific attacks.

  • True

28.1 The cleanroom strategy is based on the ___ software process model.

  • B. incremental

28.2 The cleanroom strategy relies on

  • C. tests that exercise the software as it is really used

28.5 This box specification describes an abstraction, stimuli, and response.

  • A. black box

28.6 This box specification describes the architectural design for some system component.

  • C. state box

28.7 This box specification is closely aligned with procedural design and structured programming.

  • B. clear box

28.14 A data invariant is a set of conditions that are true during the execution of any function.

  • False

28.15 In some formal languages, stored data that the system accesses and alters is called a(n)

  • C. state

28.16 In formal methods work, an action that reads or writes data to a state is called a(n)

  • D. operation

28.17 What defines the circumstances in which a particular operation is valid?

  • B. precondition

29.2 Which of the following is not considered one of the four important elements that should exist when a configuration management system is developed?

  • A. component elements
  • B. human elements
  • C. process elements
  • D. validation elements

29.5 Modern software engineering practices usually attempt to maintain SCI's in a project database or repository.

  • True

29.8 The ability to track relationships and changes to configuration objects is one of the most important features of the SCM repository.

  • True

29.9 Which of the following tasks is not part of software configuration management?

  • A. change control
  • B. reporting
  • C. statistical quality control
  • D. version control

29.10 A basic configuration object is a ___ created by a software engineer during some phase of the software development process.

  • A. program data structure
  • B. hardware driver
  • C. unit of information
  • D. all of the above

29.11 Version control systems establish a change set as part of their primary functionality.

  • False

29.12 Change control is not necessary if a development group is making use of an automated project database tool.

  • False

29.13 When software configuration management is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by the

  • B. quality assurance group

29.14 The primary purpose of configuration status reporting is to

  • C. make sure that change information is communicated to all affected parties

29.16 Web and Mobile App configuration objects can be managed in much the same way as conventional software configuration objects except for:

  • A. content items
  • B. functional items
  • C. graphic items
  • D. user items

29.17 Content management establishes a process by which Web content is rendered on the user's display screen.

  • False

29.20 Requiring developers to check Web configuration items in and out and sending affected stakeholders e-mail messages automatically are good ways to deal with configuration auditing and reporting for WebApps.

  • True

30.2 Which these are reasons for using technical product measures during software development?

  • A. large body of scientific evidence supports their use
  • B. provides software engineers with an objective mechanism for assessing software quality
  • C. they allow all quality software quality information to be expressed unambiguously as a single number
  • D. all of the above

30.3 Which measurement activity is missing from the list below? (这题是不是缺了题干?)

  • A. design
  • B. feedback
  • C. measurement
  • D. quantification

30.5 One of the most important attributes for a software product metric is that it should be

  • A. easy to compute

30.7 The function point metric is an example of metric that can be used to assist with technical decision-making based on the analysis model information, without making use of historical project data.

  • False

30.8 The specification metrics proposed by Davis address which two characteristics of the software requirements?

  • C. specificity and completeness

30.10 Which of the following is not a measurable characteristic of an object-oriented design?

  • A. completeness
  • B. efficiency
  • C. size
  • D. volatility

30.11 The depth of inheritance tree (DIT) metric can give an OO software designer a reading on the

  • B. completion time required for system implementation

30.13 If you encounter a class with a large responsibility (large class size or CS value) you should consider

  • C. partitioning the class

30.15 Because the class is the dominant unit in OO systems very few metrics have been proposed for operations that reside within a class.

  • True

30.16 Interface metrics are use to assess the complexity of the module's input and output relationships with external devices.

  • False

30.17 Most WebApps can be easily characterized by judicious use of widely recognized suites of software metrics?

  • False

30.20 The IEEE software maturity index (SMI) is used to provide a measure of the

  • D. stability of a software product as it is modified during maintenance

31~36 章

31.1 Effective software project management focuses on

  • C. people, product, process, project

31.3 The first step in project planning is to

  • D. establish the objectives and scope.

31.7 The best person to hire as a project team leader is the most competent software engineering practitioner available.

  • False

31.8 The best project team organizational model to use when tackling extremely complex problems is the

  • B. open paradigm

31.10 One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to

  • A. give team members more control over process and technical decisions.

31.12 Which of these software characteristics is not a factor contributing to project coordination difficulties?

  • A. interoperability
  • B. performance
  • C. scale
  • D. uncertainty

31.13 Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project?

  • A. context, lines of code, function
  • B. context, function, communication requirements
  • C. information objectives, function, performance
  • D. communications requirements, performance, information objectives

31.15 Product and process decomposition occurs simultaneously as the project plan evolves.

  • True

31.16 When can selected common process framework activities be omitted during process decomposition?

  • D. never the activities are invariant

32.2 Process indicators enable a software project manager to

  • D. none of the above

32.5 Software quality and functionality must be measured indirectly.

  • True

32.8 There is no need to reconcile LOC and FP measures since each in meaningful in its own right as a project measure.

  • False

32.11 Which of the following is not a measure that can be collected from a Web application project?

  • A. Customization index
  • B. Number of dynamic objects
  • C. Number of internal page links
  • D. Number of static web pages

32.12 Which of the following software quality factors is most likely to be affected by radical changes to computing architectures?

  • A. operation
  • B. transition
  • C. revision
  • D. none of the above

32.14 A software quality metric that can be used at both the process and project levels is defect removal efficiency (DRE).

  • True

32.15 Why is it important to measure the process of software engineering and software it produces?

  • C. To determine whether a software group is improving or not.

33.4 Software feasibility is based on which of the following

  • C. technology, finance, time, resources

33.5 The number of people required for a software project is determined

  • A. after an estimate of the development effort is made.
  • B. by the size of the project budget.
  • C. from an assessment of the technical complexity of the system.
  • D. all of the above

33.11 LOC-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

  • C. software functions

33.12 FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

  • A. information domain values

33.18 Putnam's software equation is a dynamic empirical model that has two independent parameters: a size estimate and an indication of project duration in calendar months or years.

  • True

33.20 In agile software development estimation techniques focus on the time required to complete each

  • A. increment

34.3 Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles of software project scheduling:

  • A. compartmentalization
  • B. market assessment
  • C. time allocation
  • D. effort validation

34.5 The software equation can be used to show that by extending the project deadline slightly

  • A. fewer people are required

34.7 A task set is a collection of

  • A. engineering work tasks, milestones, deliverables

34.10 Two tools for computing critical path and project completion times from activity networks are

  • A. CPM
  • D. PERT
  • E. a and d

34.12 The best indicator of progress on a software project is the completion

  • C. and successful review of a defined software work product

35.1 Proactive risk management is sometimes described as fire fighting.

  • False

35.2 Software risk always involves two characteristics

  • C. uncertainty and loss

35.3 Three categories of risks are

  • B. project risks, technical risks, business risks

35.4 Generic risks require far more attention than product-specific risks.

  • False

35.7 Software risk impact assessment should focus on consequences affecting

  • D. performance, support, cost, schedule

35.8 Risk projection attempts to rate each risk in two ways

  • C. likelihood and consequences

35.9 Risk tables are sorted by

  • B. probability and impact

35.12 The reason for refining risks is to break them into smaller units having different consequences.

  • False

35.14 Risk monitoring involves watching the risk indicators defined for the project and not determining the effectiveness of the risk mitigation steps themselves.

  • False

35.16 Risk information sheets (RIS) are never an acceptable substitute for a full risk mitigation, monitoring, and management (RMMM) plan.

  • False

36.1 How much effort is typically expended by a software organization on software maintenance?

  • C. 60 percent

36.6 Which of the following activities is not part of the software reengineering process model?

  • A. forward engineering
  • B. inventory analysis
  • C. prototyping
  • D. reverse engineering

36.8 Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

  • A. abstraction level
  • B. completeness
  • C. connectivity
  • D. directionality

36.10 The first reverse engineering activity involves seeking to understand

  • B. processing

36.11 Reverse engineering should proceed the reengineering of any user interface.

  • True

36.13 Code restructuring is a good example of software reengineering.

  • False

36.16 Reengineering client/server systems begins with a thorough analysis of the business environment that encompasses the existing computing system.

  • True

36.17 The only time reengineering enters into work with a legacy system is when it components will be implemented as objects.

  • False